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Matthew 12:40
04-21-2017, 07:43 AM
Post: #231
RE: Matthew 12:40
Imprecise Interrupt,
re: "Luke 24:21 does not say 'after three days'..."

I didn't say it did.



re: "Luke 24:21 says 'it is the third day'..."

Actually, it says - "...today is the third day since...". But I'm afraid I don't see your point. You said - "Three days and three nights means on the fourth day". I was agreeing with you by referrencing Luke 24:21.




re: " Mark 8:31 contradicts Matthew 16:21, 17:23, 20:19 and Luke 9:22, 18:33, 24:7, 24:46, which all say on the third day."

Not necessarily. On "the third day" could easily be referring to the third day after the crucifixion because of Matthew 12:40, Mark 8:31 and Luke 24:21.
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04-21-2017, 08:16 AM
Post: #232
RE: Matthew 12:40
(04-21-2017 07:43 AM)rstrats Wrote:  Imprecise Interrupt,
re: "Luke 24:21 does not say 'after three days'..."

I didn't say it did.



re: "Luke 24:21 says 'it is the third day'..."

Actually, it says - "...today is the third day since...". But I'm afraid I don't see your point. You said - "Three days and three nights means on the fourth day". I was agreeing with you by referrencing Luke 24:21.

re: " Mark 8:31 contradicts Matthew 16:21, 17:23, 20:19 and Luke 9:22, 18:33, 24:7, 24:46, which all say on the third day."

Not necessarily. On "the third day" could easily be referring to the third day after the crucifixion because of Matthew 12:40, Mark 8:31 and Luke 24:21.

You originally said…
(04-21-2017 06:18 AM)rstrats Wrote:  Imprecise Interrupt,
re: " Three days and three nights means on the fourth day."

Which is in line with Mark 8:31 and Luke 24:21.

Mark 8:31 says…
Quote:Mark 8
31 He then began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and after three days rise again.

Luke 24:21 says (in context)
Quote:Luke 21
20 The chief priests and our rulers handed him over to be sentenced to death, and they crucified him;
21 but we had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel. And what is more, it is the third day since all this took place. 22 In addition, some of our women amazed us. They went to the tomb early this morning 23 but didn’t find his body. They came and told us that they had seen a vision of angels, who said he was alive.

It is the third day since the crucifixion and the resurrection has already taken place. BTW the Greek words used are triten (third, singular) and hemeran (day, singular).

If Mark’s ‘after three days’ is used to support Matthew’s ‘three days and three nights’ it cannot mean ‘on the third day’ or ‘it is the third day’, it must mean on the fourth day. If Mark is in line with all the other references I provided and with Luke 24:21, it is not in line with Matthew 12:40.

The Wednesday crucifixion scenario Sue proposes definitely fits only with Matthew 12:40, possibly fits with Mark 8:31 depending on meaning, but definitely does not fit with all the other references. That is my position. Are you agreeing with that? Or do you mean something else?

We cannot solve our problems with the same thinking we used when we created them.
- Albert Einstein
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04-21-2017, 09:09 AM
Post: #233
RE: Matthew 12:40
The thread title says -- Matthew 12:40 -- "For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

This is from the NKJV.

And the question has been 'what constitutes a day and a night' -- and it seems to be that Any part of a said day Or night would constitute a 'day'. Whether it be 5 minutes or 23 hrs.

Maybe what seems to be a contradiction is merely the difference between the Jewish and Roman day.
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04-22-2017, 12:02 PM
Post: #234
RE: Matthew 12:40
(04-21-2017 09:09 AM)Sue D. Wrote:  The thread title says -- Matthew 12:40 -- "For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

This is from the NKJV.

And the question has been 'what constitutes a day and a night' -- and it seems to be that Any part of a said day Or night would constitute a 'day'. Whether it be 5 minutes or 23 hrs.

Maybe what seems to be a contradiction is merely the difference between the Jewish and Roman day.

Romans tended to use the local standards for when a day started and ended, which in Jerusalem would be sunset to sunset. The official Roman standard used in Roman lands proper was to start the day at midnight. However, the naming of the hours was still in reference to sunset or sunrise. Thus midnight was hora sexta noctis, the sixth hour of the night. Counting days and nights would come out the same in both Hebrew and Roman reckoning.

Counting days in the Roman fashion makes counting parts of days more reasonable because the tiny fraction of Friday problem is alleviated. In the traditional sixth day crucifixion scenario, Friday until midnight could be the first day, all of Saturday the second day, and Sunday from midnight the third day. ‘On the third day’ becomes more reasonable for a Friday crucifixion. But ‘after three days’ and ‘three days and three nights’ are still incompatible with a sixth day crucifixion scenario.

We cannot solve our problems with the same thinking we used when we created them.
- Albert Einstein
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